CCNA 4:Module 6

Options with highlight colors are correct answer

1. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)
• users are on a shared medium
• uses RF signal transmission
• local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
• physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS
• user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO

2. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)
• channel widths
• access method
• maximum data rate
• modulation techniques
• compression techniques

3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
• use higher RF frequencies
• allocate an additional channel
• subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
• reduce the length of the local loop to 5.5 kilometers or less
• use filters and splitters at the customer site to separate voice from data traffic

4. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?
• cable
• DSL
• ISDN
• POTS

5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator hasdecided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the resultof this solution?
• A reliable connection is established at greater speeds than what is offered from dialup over POTS. Security is increased, but username and password information are sent in plain text.
• The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN clientsoftware.
• Security and reliability are increased at a substantial loss in throughput, which is considered acceptable when supporting asingle user environment.
• Reliability and security are increased without the need for additional equipment, when compared to dialup connections usingPOTS.

6. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)
• accounting
• authentication
• authorization
• data availability
• data confidentiality
• data integrity

7. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
• digital certificates
• ESP
• hashing algorithms
• smart cards
• WPA

8. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)
• digital certificates
• encryption
• encapsulation
• hashing
• passwords

9. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)
• AES
• DES
• AH
• hash
• MPLS
• RSA

10. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
• Diffie-Hellman
• digital certificate
• pre-shared key
• RSA signature

11. Which statement describes cable?
• Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstreamfrequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.
• The cable subscriber must purchase a cable modem termination system (CMTS)
• Each cable subscriber has dedicated upstream and downstream bandwidth.
• Cable subscribers may expect up to 27 Mbps of bandwidth on the upload path.

12. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at theteleworker’s site?
• a WiMAX tower
• a one-way multicast satellite
• a WiMAX receiver
• an access point connected to the company WLAN

13. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX)telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)
• supports municipal wireless networks utilizing mesh technologies
• covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
• supports point-to-point links, but not full mobile cellular-type access
• connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections
• operates at lower speeds than Wi-Fi, but supports many more users

14. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statementdescribes the situation observed by the technician?
• Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
• Data is flowing downstream.
• Cable television transmissions are interfering with voice and data transmissions.
• The system is experiencing congestion in the lower frequency ranges.

15. Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the Corporate network.
• Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?
• Locations C, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A and B require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installedon the edge of the network.
• Locations C and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A, B, and D require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network.
• Locations A, B, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Location C requires an additional router on the edge of the network.
• All locations can support VPN connectivity.

16. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
• AH
• L2TP
• ESP
• GRE
• PPTP

17. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)
• ATM
• CHAP
• IPsec
• IPX
• MPLS
• PPTP

18. Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?
• a GRE tunnel
• a site-to-site VPN
• a remote-access VPN
• the user must be at the office location to establish a secure connection

19. Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)
• The devices must use a dedicated Layer 2 connection.
• The devices must have the VPN client software installed.
• The two parties must inspect the traffic against the same ACLs.
• The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
• The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
• The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.

CCNA 4:Module 5

Options with highlight colors are correct answer

1. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?
• blocked in and out of all interfaces
• blocked on all inbound interfaces, but permitted on all outbound interfaces
• permitted in and out of all interfaces
• blocked on all outbound interfaces, but permitted on all inbound interfaces

2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
• packet size
• protocol suite
• source address
• destination address
• source router interface
• destination router interface

3. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?
• by destination UDP port
• by protocol type
• by source IP address
• by source UDP port
• by destination IP address

4. Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)
• Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.
• Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.
• Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
• Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
• Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.

5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?
• close to the source
• close to the destination
• on an Ethernet port
• on a serial port

6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)
• An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
• A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
• A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement.
• A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by default.
• Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.
• Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.

7. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)
• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
• The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

8. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
ccess-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any
• FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• All traffic is implicitly denied.
• FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.
• Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.

9. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?
• The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.
• Both ACLs are applied to the interface.
• The network administrator receives an error.
• Only the first ACL remains applied to the interface.

10. Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web
• server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?
• ISP Fa0/0 outbound
• R2 S0/0/1 inbound
• R3 Fa0/0 inbound
• R3 S0/0/1 outbound

11. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)
• Only named ACLs allow comments.
• Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.
• Named ACLs offer more specific filtering options than numbered ACLs.
• Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.
• More than one named IP ACL can be configured in each direction on a router interface.

12. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.)
• extended ACL
• reflexive ACL
• console logging
• authentication
• Telnet connectivity
• user account with a privilege level of 15

13. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?
• It is allowed because of the implicit deny any.
• It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
• It is allowed because line 10 of the ACL allows packets to 192.168.0.0/16.
• It is allowed because line 20 of the ACL allows packets to the host 192.168.10.13.

14. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the
• company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company.
• What type of ACL is most appropriate?
• dynamic
• port-based
• reflexive
• time-based

15. Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?
• TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
• TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.
• Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
• Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.

16. The following commands were entered on a router:
Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any
The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?
• The wildcard mask 0.0.0.0 is assumed.
• The access list statements are misconfigured.
• All nodes on the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied access to other networks.
• No traffic will be allowed to access any nodes or services on the 172.16.0.0 network.

17. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?
• Web traffic does not use port 80 by default.
• The access list is applied in the wrong direction.
• The access list needs to be placed closer to the destination, on R3.
• The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.

18. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?
• Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.
• Hosts connecting to resources in the 191.68.30.0/24 network have an idle timeout of 15 minutes.
• Anyone attempting to telnet into R3 will have an absolute time limit of five minutes.
• Telnet access to R3 will only be permitted on Serial 0/0/1.

19. Which statement about standard ACLs is true
• Standard ACLS must be numbered and cannot be named.
• They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.
• They can filter based on source and destination address as well as on source and destination port.
• When applied to an outbound interface, incoming packets are processed before they are routed to the outbound interface.

20. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?
• Extended ACLs can be named, but standard ACLs cannot.
• Unlike standard ACLs, extended ACLS can be applied in the inbound or outbound direction.
• Based on payload content, an extended ACL can filter packets, such as information in an e-mail or instant message.
• In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.

21. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?
• the ability to filter traffic based on a specific protocol
• the ability to filter traffic based on an entire protocol suite and destination
• the ability to specify source and destination addresses to use when identifying traffic
• the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list

22. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?
• 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255
• 127.16.16.0 0.0.0.255
• 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255
• 172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255
• 172.16.16.0 0.0.255.255

23. Which two statements accurately describe the characteristics of wildcard masks in an ACL? (Choose two.)
• Wildcard masks are the inverse of the subnet mask.
• The word “any” indicates that all corresponding bits must be matched.
• The word “host” corresponds to a wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0 in an ACL statement.
• A wildcard mask of 0.0.255.255 can be used to create a match for an entire Class B network.
• A wildcard mask bit of 1 indicates that the corresponding bit in the address must be matched.

24. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?
• It will deny TCP traffic to the Internet if the traffic is sourced from the 172.22.10.0/24 network.
• It will not allow TCP traffic coming from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
• It will allow any TCP traffic from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
• It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.

25. Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?
• Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.
• Apply the ACL outbound on the FastEthernet0/0 interface on router R1.
• Include the established keyword at the end of the first line in the ACL.
• Include a statement in the ACL to deny the UDP traffic that originates from 172.11.10.0/24 network.

26. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator applied an ACL outbound on S0/0/0 on router R1. Immediately after the administrator did so, the users on network 172.22.30.0/24 started complaining that they have intermittent access to the resources available on the server on the 10.10.0.0/16 network. On the basis of the configuration that is provided, what is the possible reason for the problem?
• The ACL allows only the mail traffic to the server; the rest of the traffic is blocked.
• The ACL permits the IP packets for users on network 172.22.30.0/24 only during a specific time range.
• The ACL permits TCP packets only if a connection is established from the server to the network 172.22.0.0/16.
• The ACL allows only TCP traffic from users on network 172.22.40.0/24 to access the server; TCP traffic from any other sources is blocked.

CCNA 4:Module 4

Options with highlight colors are correct answer

1. Which two statements are true regarding network security? (Choose two.)
Securing a network against internal threats is a lower priority because company employees represent a low security risk.
Both experienced hackers who are capable of writing their own exploit code and inexperienced individuals who download exploits from the Internet pose a serious threat to network security.
Assuming a company locates its web server outside the firewall and has adequate backups of the web server, no further security measures are needed to protect the web server because no harm can come from it being hacked.
Established network operating systems like UNIX and network protocols like TCP/IP can be used with their default settings because they have no inherent security weaknesses.
Protecting network devices from physical damage caused by water or electricity is a necessary part of the security policy.

2. Which two statements are true about network attacks? (Choose two.)
Strong network passwords mitigate most DoS attacks.
Worms require human interaction to spread, viruses do not.
Reconnaissance attacks are always electronic in nature, such as ping sweeps or port scans.
A brute-force attack searches to try every possible password from a combination of characters.
Devices in the DMZ should not be fully trusted by internal devices, and communication between the DMZ and internal devices should be authenticated to prevent attacks such as port redirection.

3. Users are unable to access a company server. The system logs show that the server is operating slowly because it is receiving a high level of fake requests for service. Which type of attack is occurring?
reconnaissance
access
DoS
worm
virus
Trojan horse

4. An IT director has begun a campaign to remind users to avoid opening e-mail messages from suspicious sources. Which type of attack is the IT director trying to protect users from?
DoS
DDoS
virus
access
reconnaissance

5. Which two statements regarding preventing network attacks are true? (Choose two.)
The default security settings for modern server and PC operating systems can be trusted to have secure default security settings.
Intrusion prevention systems can log suspicious network activity, but there is no way to counter an attack in progress without user intervention.
Physical security threat mitigation consists of controlling access to device console ports, labeling critical cable runs, installing UPS systems, and providing climate control.
Phishing attacks are best prevented by firewall devices.
Changing default usernames and passwords and disabling or uninstalling unnecessary services are aspects of device hardening.

6. Intrusion detection occurs at which stage of the Security Wheel?
securing
monitoring
testing
improvement
reconnaissance

7. Which two objectives must a security policy accomplish? (Choose two.)
provide a checklist for the installation of secure servers
describe how the firewall must be configured
document the resources to be protected.
identify the security objectives of the organization.
identify the specific tasks involved in hardening a router

8. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)
It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
It communicates consensus and defines roles.
It is developed by end users.
It is developed after all security devices have been fully tested.
It defines how to handle security incidents.
It should be encrypted as it contains backups of all important passwords and keys.

9. Which two statements define the security risk when DNS services are enabled on the network? (Choose two.)
By default, name queries are sent to the broadcast address 255.255.255.255.
DNS name queries require the ip directed-broadcast command to be enabled on the Ethernet interfaces of all routers.
Using the global configuration command ip name-server on one router enables the DNS services on all routers in the network.
The basic DNS protocol does not provide authentication or integrity assurance.
The router configuration does not provide an option to set up main and backup DNS servers.

10. What are two benefits of using Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose two.)
It gives the administrator detailed control over which services are enabled or disabled.
It offers the ability to instantly disable non-essential system processes and services.
It automatically configures the router to work with SDM.
It ensures the greatest compatibility with other devices in your network.
It allows the administrator to configure security policies without having to understand all of the Cisco IOS software features.

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM, but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?
The privilege level of the user is not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The HTTP server is not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.

12. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)
The “mz” in the filename represents the special capabilities and features of the IOS.
The file is uncompressed and requires 2.6 MB of RAM to run.
The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
The file is downloadable and 121.4MB in size.
The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.

13. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is trying to back up the Cisco IOS router software and receives the output shown. What are two possible reasons for this output? (Choose two.)
The Cisco IOS file has an invalid checksum.
The TFTP client on the router is corrupt.
The router cannot connect to the TFTP server.
The TFTP server software has not been started.
There is not enough room on the TFTP server for the software.

14. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)
Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command.
Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.
Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version command.
Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.
Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.

15. The password recovery process begins in which operating mode and using what type of connection? (Choose two.)
ROM monitor
boot ROM
Cisco IOS
direct connection through the console port
network connection through the Ethernet port
network connection through the serial port

16. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) is installed on router R1. What is the result of opening a web browser on PC1 and entering the URL https://192.168.10.1?
The password is sent in plain text.
A Telnet session is established with R1.
The SDM page of R1 appears with a dialog box that requests a username and password.
The R1 home page is displayed and allows the user to download Cisco IOS images and configuration files.

17. Which statement is true about Cisco Security Device Manager (SDM)?
SDM can run only on Cisco 7000 series routers.
SDM can be run from router memory or from a PC.
SDM should be used for complex router configurations.
SDM is supported by every version of the Cisco IOS software.

18. Which step is required to recover a lost enable password for a router?
Set the configuration register to bypass the startup configuration.
Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration.
Reload the IOS from a TFTP server from ROMMON.
Reconfigure the router using setup mode.

19. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?
Schedule antivirus scans.
Schedule antispyware scans .
Schedule training for all users.
Schedule operating systems updates.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) has been used to configure a required level of security on the router.
What would be accomplished when the SDM applies the next step on the security problems that are identified on the router?
SDM will automatically invoke the AutoSecure command.
SDM will generate a report that will outline the proper configuration actions to alleviate the security issues.
SDM will create a configuration file that can be copy and pasted into the router to reconfigure the services.
SDM will reconfigure the services that are marked in the exhibit as “fix it” to apply the suggested security changes.

21. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the “ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 cisco” statement in the configuration?
to specify a key that is used to authenticate routing updates
to save bandwidth by compressing the traffic
to enable SSH encryption of traffic
to create an IPsec tunnel

22. Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?
The commands filter UDP and TCP traffic coming to the router.
The commands disable any TCP or UDP request sent by the routing protocols.
The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.
The commands disable the BOOTP and TFTP server services to prevent security vulnerabilities.

CCNA 4:Module 3

Options with highlight colors are correct answer

1. Which best describes the benefit of using Frame Relay as opposed to a leased line or ISDN service?
Customers can define their virtual circuit needs in far greater combinations, with increments as small as 64 kbps.
Customers pay for an end-to-end connection that includes the local loop and the network link.
Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider.
Connecting new sites requires new lower cost circuit installations when compared to ISDN dialup costs or adding additional
hardware for leased service.

2. What two methods does Frame Relay technology use to process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.

3. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?
local address identifying a destination router across a Frame Relay network
locally significant address used to identify a virtual circuit
logical address identifying the interface between a router and a Frame Relay Switch
logical address used to identify the DCE

4. What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?
ISDN circuit
limited access circuit
switched parallel circuit
virtual circuit

5. Which two items allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network?(Choose two.)
ARP
RARP
Proxy ARP
Inverse ARP
LMI status messages
ICMP

6. Refer to the exhibit. A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used to send the ping?
110
115
220
225

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two outcomes occur from the configuration shown? (Choose two.)
The broadcasts will be forwarded to 10.1.1.1.
The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1.
DLCI 22 will replace the MAC address in the ARP table for entry 10.1.1.1
Frames arriving on interface serial 0/0/0 of RT_1 will have a data link layer address of 22.
Inverse-ARP will now add an entry for 10.1.1.1 into the Frame Relay map table using DLCI 22.

8. Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the point-to-point configuration on subinterface S0/0.110 have on the operation of the
router?
It helps to conserve IP addresses.
It establishes multiple PVC connections to multiple physical interfaces.
It eliminates split horizon issues without increasing the likelihood of routing loops.
It requires the configuration of the encapsulation command on the subinterface.

9. Which three actions does a Frame Relay switch perform when it detects an excessive build-up of frames in its queue? (Choose three.)
puts a hold on accepting frames in excess of the CIR
drops frames from the queue that have the DE bit set
reduces the number of frames it sends over the link
re-negotiates flow control with the connected device
sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link
sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true given the output shown? (Choose two.)
The IP address of the local Frame Relay interface is 172.16.1.4.
The local DLCI number is 401.
Inverse ARP is being used on this connection.
This interface is in the active state and in the process of negotiating configuration parameters.
Multicast is not enabled on this connection.

11. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a Frame Relay connection, an administrator entered the show interfaces s0/0 command and received the output shown in the exhibit. What are two probable reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
The cable between the CSU/DSU and the router is disconnected.
The serial 0/0 interface is shutdown.
The router is not configured for the same Frame Relay PVC as the switch.
The LMI type on the Frame Relay switch is NOT ANSI.
The address of the Frame Relay switch is not in the routing table.

12. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the Frame Relay switch from the output shown?
It is currently not transmitting data.
It is in the process of establishing the PVC.
It has put a hold on processing frames in excess of the CIR.
It is experiencing congestion.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is part of a Frame Relay network that uses OSPF for IP routing. After the commands that are shown are entered, R2 will not exchange OSPF information correctly. What is the likely cause?
The frame-relay map command requires the broadcast keyword.
The DLCIs on each end of the PVCs are not identical.
The R2 S0/0/0 interface has not been brought online.
The LMI or Inverse ARP or both are not working.

14. Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct?
Multipoint interfaces will automatically forward routing broadcasts but will consume more IP addresses than point-to-point
subinterfaces will consume.
Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues.
Interfaces with multiple PVCs require a separate subinterface for each PVC.
Multipoint configurations cannot use subinterfaces.

15. Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that
interconnects two remote sites. Router HQ belongs to both the 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24 subnets with IP addresses of
172.16.1.3 and 172.16.2.3 respectively. Traffic between R1 and R2 must travel through HQ first. How should the serial interface
on HQ be configured to complete the topology?
one multipoint subinterface
two point-to-point subinterfaces
with the physical interface configured with two ip addresses
one IP address on a point-to-point subinterface and one IP address on the physical interface

16. What consideration must be taken into account if RIP is used on Frame Relay multiaccess networks?
To forward routing updates, address-to-DLCI mapping must be done via the use of the frame-relay map command
coupled with the broadcast keyword.
Inverse ARP must be enabled to turn routing update broadcasts into unicast traffic that can be propagated to other Frame Relay
nodes.
Because broadcast traffic is not supported, RIPv1 cannot be implemented on Frame Relay networks.
To forward broadcast routing updates, dynamic mapping must be enabled.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains why the Frame Relay connection between R1 and R2 is failing?
Split horizon must be disabled.
The LMI type must be specified.
Logical subinterfaces must be used instead.
The frame-relay map commands are using incorrect DLCIs.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. Which set of configuration options for routers R2 and R3 would provide each router connectivity to R1?
R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103

R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.3 301

R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.2.1 103
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 201

R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point
R2(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point
R3(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp

R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point
R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point
R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301

19. Refer to the exhibit. What can be known about the configuration of router R1 from the output?
The Frame Relay LMI DLCI has been incorrectly configured as DLCI 1023.
The Frame Relay LMI type has been changed from its default.
The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.
The command encapsulation frame-relay ietf has been used on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.

20. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the configuration of router R1 from the exhibited output?
LMI updates are not being received properly.
The LMI type for the Serial 0/0/0 interface has been left to its default configuration.
Cisco HDLC is used as a Layer 2 encapsulation protocol on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.
The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.

21. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output?
Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an DLCI of 201.
Serial 0/0/0 has the feature frame-relay inverse-arp enabled.
Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an IP address of 172.16.4.3.
Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with the command frame-relay map ip 172.16.4.3 201 broadcast.

22. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. What configuration option should be configured on the R2 and R3 serial interfaces in order for all routers to ping each other successfully?
R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301 broadcast
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast

R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast

CCNA 4:Module 2

Options with highlight colors are correct answer

1. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about PPP operation?
Layer 2 is down.
LCP, IPCP, and CDPCP negotiations are in progress.
Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully.
Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully.

2. Which PPP configuration option can be used to establish load balancing over the interfaces of a router?2
callback
multilink
compression
error detection

3. What function do Network Control Protocols provide for a PPP connection?
to supply error detection.
to establish and terminate data links.
to provide authentication capabilities to PPP.
to manage network congestion and to allow quality testing of the link.
to allow multiple Layer 3 protocols to operate over the same physical link.

4. What does the demarcation point represent in data communication physical circuits?
DTE/DCE interface on the device connecting to the Internet
location of the firewall or router
physical point at which the public network ends and the private customer network begins
tag assigned to the physical block where a cross-connect occurs

5. Which two options can LCP negotiate? (Choose two.)
link quality
authentication
dynamic flow control
compression and network layer address for IP
connection-oriented or connectionless communication methods

6. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about the function of the Serial 0/0/0 interface on the router after the commands are entered?

All username and password information that is sent will be encrypted.
All authentication on the serial link will be accomplished using a three-way handshake.
The Predictor algorithm will be used to compress all packets that are sent and received on the serial link.
The serial link will be closed if the number of received packets at the destination node falls below 90 percent of the packets that are sent.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is not able to communicate with a neighbor router that is directly connected to serial 0/0/0. What is the reason for this?
Interface Serial0/0/0 resets very frequently.
PPP LQM has shutdown the serial interface.
The serial interface has no input or output queues available.
The serial interface is not configured for a Layer 2 protocol.
The interface has been administratively shutdown with the shutdown command.

8. Which authentication protocol can be spoofed to allow playback attacks?
MD5
CHAP
PAP
NCP

9. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true regarding the output shown?
LCP is in the process of negotiating a link.
LCP and NCP are waiting for CHAP authentication to complete.
LCP negotiation has been successful, but NCP negotiation is in progress.
Data is able to flow across this link.

10.Which three statements are correct about HDLC encapsulation? (Choose three.)
HDLC does not support CDP.
HDLC and PPP are compatible.
HDLC supports PAP and CHAP authentication.
HDLC implementation in Cisco routers is proprietary.
HDLC is the default serial interface encapsulation on Cisco routers.
HDLC uses frame delimiters to mark the beginnings and ends of frames.

11. Which three statements are true regarding LCP? (Choose three.)
It is responsible for negotiating link establishment.
It negotiates options for Layer 3 protocols running over PPP.
It uses MD5 encryption while negotiating link establishment parameters.
It terminates the link upon user request or the expiration of an inactivity timer.
It can test the link to determine if link quality is sufficient to bring up the link.
It monitors the link for congestion and dynamically adjusts the acceptable window size.

12. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true regarding the output shown?
NCP has successfully negotiated.
The PAP passwords did not match, so the routers are trying CHAP authentication.
One router has suggested PAP authentication, and the other has accepted authentication but suggested CHAP authentication.
One router can only use PAP authentication while the other router can only use CHAP, so the connection has been rejected.

13. Which serial communications DTE/DCE interface standard is used to provide high-speed connectivity of up to 52 Mbps between LANs and is found on many high-end Cisco routers?
EIA/TIA 232 (RS-232)
EIA/TIA 422 (RS-422)
EIA/TIA 423 (RS-423)
EIA/TIA-612/613 (HSSI)
ITU V.35

14. Which two statements are true about time-division multiplexing (TDM)? (Choose two.)
TDM relies on Layer 3 protocols to operate.
Multiple sources can transmit over a single channel.
Original data streams must be reconstructed at the destination.
TDM methods vary depending on the Layer 2 protocol that is used.
It allows information from multiple channels to be allocated bandwidth on multiple wires.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1, the DCE device, has just been configured for PPP encapsulation with authentication. What series of commands will allow another router, the DTE device, to communicate over its serial 0/0/0 interface to router R1?
Router(config)# hostname R3
R3(config)# username R1 password Cisco
R3(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
R3(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
R3(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.3 255.255.255.0
R3(config-if)# ppp authentication chap

Router(config)# hostname R3
R3(config)# username R3 password Cisco
R3(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
R3(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
R3(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.3 255.255.255.0
R3(config-if)# ppp authentication chap

Router (config)# username Router password Cisco
Router (config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
Router (config-if)# clockrate 64000
Router (config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Router (config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
Router config-if)# ppp authentication chap

Router (config)# username R1 password Cisco
Router config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
Router (config-if)# clockrate 64000
Router config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Router (config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
Router (config-if)# ppp authentication chap

16. Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a serial interface, a technician enters the command show interface serial 0/0/0 . If the interface is in DCE mode, what two problems are likely to cause the indicated problem? (Choose two.)
The remote CSU or DSU has failed.
The router is not sensing a CD signal.
A timing problem has occurred on the cable.
The line is not physically connected to the CSU/DSU.
The router configuration contains the shutdown interface configuration command.

17. What advantage does PPP have over HDLC for serial communications?
It can communicate more efficiently with other Cisco devices
It is less complex to configure
It has less Layer 2 overhead
It supports authentication

18. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the show interface Serial0/0 output, how many NCP sessions have been established?2
one
two
three
four

19. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true regarding the output shown? (Choose two.)
The router has agreed on IP parameters.
The router has negotiated LCP successfully.
The router is negotiating IP compression options.
The router is requesting an IP address from its peer.
The router has accepted IP but not the suggested IP options.

20. Why are serial connections preferred over parallel connections for long transmission lengths?
Parallel connections do not support error checking.
Parallel connections are subject to excessive attenuation.
Parallel connections are subject to clock skew and to crosstalk between wires.
Parallel connections transmit over only two wires and therefore transmit data more slowly.

21. Which three statements correctly describe PPP authentication? (Choose three.)

PAP sends passwords in clear text.
PAP uses a 3-way handshake to establish a link.
PAP provides protection from repeated trial-and-error attacks.
CHAP uses a 2-way handshake to establish a link.
CHAP uses a challenge/response that is based on the MD5 hash algorithm.
CHAP uses repeated challenges for verification.

CCNA 4:Module 1

Options with highlight colors are correct answer

1. At which two layers of the OSI model does a WAN operate? (Choose two.)
Physical Layer.
Data Link Layer.
Network Layer.
Transport Layer.
Presentation Layer.
Application Layer.

2. Why is the call setup time of a circuit-switched WAN implementation considered a drawback?
Routing protocols are incompatible with this function.
It restricts the communication sent to voice traffic only.
A telephone must be used to initially start transferring data.
Data cannot be transferred until a circuit has been established.

3. Which networking device is typically used to concentrate the dial-in and dial-out traffic of multiple users to and from a network?
Core router.
Access server.
Frame Relay switch.
ATM switch.

4. What can cause a reduction in available bandwidth on a cable broadband connection?
Smaller cells.
Number of subscribers.
Committed information rate.
Distance from the central office of the provider.

5. Which three WAN devices can be found in the cloud? (Choose three.)
ATM switches.
core routers.
CSU/DSU.
Ethernet switches.
Frame Relay switches repeaters.

6. Which statement is true about data connectivity between a customer and a service provider?
Normally the CSU/DSU is the designated demarcation point for the service provider but not the customer.
The segment between the demarcation point and the central office is known as the "last mile."
The local loop is the segment between the CSU/DSU and the serial port on a router.
Putting data on the local loop is the responsibility of the DTE.

7. What are two advantages of an analog PSTN WAN connection? (Choose two.)
low cost.
availability.
traffic encryption.
available bandwidth.
support for voice and video.

8. Which two devices are commonly used as data communications equipment? (Choose two.)
modem.
router.
CSU/DSU.
ISDN switch.
Ethernet switch.

9. For digital lines, which device is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop?
CSU/DSU.
Frame Relay switch.
ISDN switch.
modem.
PBX switch.

10. A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth for this connection is estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the least investment for this company?
ATM.
ISDN.
analog dialup.
T1 Leased Line.

11. Which switching type will allow the communication devices in the provider network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?
circuit-switched.
dedicated switched lines.
frame-switched.
packet-switched.

12. Which three features are identified with Frame Relay connections? (Choose three.)
CIR.
DLCI.
DSLAM.
PVC.
SPID.
53-byte cells.

13. Which term describes a device that will put data on the local loop?
DLCI.
DTE.
DCE.
BRI.
PRI.

14. Which statement is true about the differences between a WAN and a LAN?
A WAN link typically traverses shorter geographic distances than a LAN link traverses.
WANs generally support higher bandwidth than LANs support.A WAN often relies on the services of carriers, such as telephone or cable companies, but a LAN does not.
All WAN implementations generally use the same Layer 2 protocol but there are many accepted LAN Layer 2 protocols in use.

15. What three terms are associated with ISDN PRI? (Choose three.)
DLCI.
circuit switching.
packet switching.
data bearer channels.
switched virtual circuits.
time-division multiplexing.

16. Which statement about WAN protocols is correct?
ATM differs from other WAN protocols in that it uses variably sized packets.
Most WAN protocols use HDLC or a variant of HDLC as a framing mechanism.
The frame header consists of the frame check sequence and cyclic redundancy check.
ISDN differs from Frame Relay, HDLC, and ATM in that it is packet-switched rather than circuit-switched technology.

17. Which statement is true of the functionality of the layers in the hierarchical network model?
The purpose of the access layer is to provide very high bandwidth communications between network devices.
Most security screening to prevent unauthorized entry to the network happens at the core layer.
Untrusted external connections are segmented from the rest of the network at all three levels.
The core layer uses high speed equipment to provide policy-based connectivity. The distribution layer aggregates WAN connections at the edge of the campus.

18. Which packet-switched WAN technology offers high-bandwidth connectivity capable of managing data, voice, and video all on the same infrastructure?
Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)
metro Ethernet
Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)

19. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?
X.25.
DSL.
ATM.
ISDN BRI.
ISDN PRI.

20. Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and permanent virtual circuits?
ATM.
ISDN.
Frame Relay.
metro Ethernet.

21. What type of connectivity is established when VPNs are used from the remote site to the private network?
PVCs.
DLCIs.
tunnels.
virtual circuits.
dedicated Layer 2 links.

22. What is an advantage of packet-switched technology over circuit-switched technology?
Packet-switched networks are less susceptible to jitter than circuit-switched networks are.
Packet-switched networks can efficiently use multiple routes inside a service provider network.
Packet-switched networks do not require an expensive permanent connection to each endpoint.
Packet-switched networks usually experience lower latency than circuit-switched networks experience.

CCNA 3:Final

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to setup Switch1 for remote access from HostA. The show ip interface brief is issued on Router1 and the show interfaces trunk command is issued on the Switch1 to verify the current status. The administrator applies the additional configuration shown in the exhibit to Switch1. However, the telnet from HostA fails. What additional commands need to be applied to the switch?
Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.50.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.50.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 50
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

2. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how will an Ethernet frame on port GigabitEthernet0/1 be modified?
802.1Q encapsulation prepends a 4-byte tag field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
802.1Q encapsulation inserts a 4-byte tag field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
802.1Q encapsulation prepends an 802.1p field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
802.1Q encapsulation inserts an 802.1p field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.

3. What vLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?
All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.
Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.

4. Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
SSID
OFDM
WEP
DSSS

5. Refer to the exhibit. What is the consequence if SW1 port F0/1 is configured as an edge port?
SW1 port F0/1 transitions to the learning state.
SW1 port F0/1 can generate a temporary loop.
SW1 port F0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
SW1 port F0/2 no longer passes BPDUs to SW4.

6. Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN on switch Y?
QoS
routing
trunking
VPN

7. Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are 128 for all interfaces. The network administrator enters spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. Which two port results are correct? (Choose two.)
S1 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
S2 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.
S3 Gi0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
S4 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
S4 Gi0/2 becomes a designated port.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the VTP domain.
This switch will drop all VTP advertisements that come from the switches that are configured in the VTP domain.
This switch will cause no disruption in the VTP domain operations if the rest of the switches in the same
VTP domain have a higher configuration revision number.

9. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is a possible cause for this failure?
S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and host B are on the default VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?
Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.
Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk.

11. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.

12. What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?
A new RSA key pair is created.
The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.
The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.
The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.

13. Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?
Forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3.
add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table.
forward the frame out Interface3.
discard the frame.
forward the frame out all interfaces.
forward the frame out Interface2.

14. Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)
It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.
It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.
It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.
It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.

15. Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP addresses should be assigned this new host?
192.168.1.11 /28
192.168.1.22 /28
192.168.1.33 /28
192.168.1.44 /28
192.168.1.55 /28

16. Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk.
SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.

17. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches? (Choose two.)
A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Computer A sends a broadcast message. Which devices will see the broadcast?
computer B
computer B and Router1
computer C and Router1
computer B, computer D, computer E and Router1
computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1

19. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters the configuration shown to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to the switch. The Telnet connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The SSH version number is wrong.
SSH has been configured on the wrong line.
Telnet and SSH cannot be configured simultaneously.
The transport input command is configured incorrectly.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
Cat-A
Cat-B
Cat-C
Cat-D

21. Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. Which VLANs will be pruned from switch SW3?
VLAN 10 and VLAN 20
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, and VLAN 20
VLAN 1, VLAN 1002 through 1005
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, VLAN 20, VLAN 1002 through 1005

22. Refer to the exhibit. What does STATIC indicate in the output that is shown?
The switch will not allow any other device to connect to port Fa0/15.
Traffic destined for MAC address 0000.c123.5432 will be forwarded to Fa0/15.
This entry will be removed and refreshed every 300 seconds to keep it in the table.
The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/15.
When processing a frame, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.

23. Which three statements are true regarding router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
requires the use of subinterfaces on the router.
requires an access link between the router and Layer 2 switch.
more cost-efficient and scalable than using multiple physical interfaces.
requires each subinterface to be configured with the no shutdown command.
can impact performance if many VLANs compete for bandwidth on a single router interface.
makes troubleshooting the inter-VLAN routing configuration much less complex than when using multiple physical interfaces.

24. Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3
The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the

25. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to remove the east-hosts VLAN and use the switch from that VLAN in one of the existing VLANs. What two commands should be used when completely removing VLAN 2 from S1-Central while leaving the switch and all its interfaces operational? (Choose two)
S1-Central# reload
S1-Central# erase flash:
S1-Central(config)# no vlan 2
S1-Central# delete flash:vlan.dat
S1-Central(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3

26. Refer to the exhibit. What does "FORWARDING" mean in the command output shown?
The switch is sending and receiving data frames.
The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.

27. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
Disable VTP pruning on SW2.
Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.
Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.

28. What are three benefits of a hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
reduced contention for bandwidth.
reduced size of the physical layout.
increased fault tolerance of the network.
elimination of the need for wiring closets.
elimination of the need for layer three functionality.
simplification of management and troubleshooting.

29. Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.)
Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced.
A non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use.
The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.
A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.
Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.
An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.

30. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?

All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.
SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.
VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1.
The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain

31. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to implement inter-VLAN routing on a hierarchical network. On which devices should the inter-VLAN routing be configured?
AS1 and AS2
DS1 and DS2
Gateway and CS1
Gateway, CS1, DS1, and DS2

32. Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three).
Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
Enable password is configured as cisco.
All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
The flash directory contains the IOS image.
VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
All interfaces are set to auto-negotiation of speed and duplex.

33. Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the idle before transmitting.

34. Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?
The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.
The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic
trunking protocol to establish a trunk.
The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.

35. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)
Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.
Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address
Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from the traffic originated.

36. What three tasks should be performed before moving a Catalyst switch to another VTP management domain? (Choose three.)
Select the correct VTP mode and version.
Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.
Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
Configure the VTP server in the new domain to recognize the BID of the switch.
Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the new domain
Verify that the switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the new domain.

37. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
only hosts A and B
only hosts A, B, and C
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts A, B, C, and E

38. Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is true?
The service password-encryption command is entered at the privileged EXEC mode prompt.
The service password-encryption command encrypts only passwords for the console and VTY ports
The service password-encryption command encrypts all previously unencrypted passwords in the running configuration.
To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command, enter the no service password-encryption command.

39. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true regarding what the cost value of 23 represents for Switch4? (Choose two.)
This cost represents the lowest cost path for Switch4 to the root switch.
A cost of 23 is the value being advertised out port 16 on the switch upstream (closer) to the root switch
Switch4 adds the cost of a Fast Ethernet link to 23 to determine its total cost to reach the root switch
Switch4 is connected via a Fast Ethernet link to an upstream switch that in turn is directly connected root switch via a Gigabit Ethernet link.
The root switch is advertising a cost of 23, which is lower than any other switch in the VLAN0001
spanning-tree domain.

40. Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate? (Choose three.)
The switch ports are on different VLANs.
The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.
The hosts are configured on different logical networks.
A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2.
The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.
The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.

41. Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?
switch A
switch B
switch C
switch D
switch E
switch F

42. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What is the last device to receive the collision?
hub HB1
switch SW1
router R1
switch SW2
router R2
switch SW4

43. Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosingthe root bridge?
The network diameter limitation is 9.
BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.
The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and farthest connected switch.

44. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem
Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking.
Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.
No routing protocol is configured on Router1.
One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.

45. What is the purpose of issuing the command switchport mode access on a switch interface?
disable port security
make the port operational
override the default port behavior
force the port to be a part of a single vlan

46. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding the information shown?
Only one VLAN is currently configured to use the trunk links.
The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
Interfaces Gi0/1 and Fa0/1 are allowed to carry data from multiple VLANs.

47. Which identifier is used to keep track of frames that are destined for a particular wireless client?
AID
SSID
BSSID
ESSID

48. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when frames that contain an unknown source address reach interface fa0/24?
A syslog message will be logged.
Fa0/24 will become error-disabled.
The incoming frames will be dropped.
The security violation count will be incremented.

49. In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?
client
root
server
transparent

50. Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless point?
Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software
From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access in a web browser.
Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.

51. What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.)
Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses.
The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.
The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.

52. What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
requires less equipment.
provides improved range.
permits increased data rates.
has a single-input and a single-output.
needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility.